Session prep questions 1-3

mhewett's version from 2016-06-15 17:54

Session 1 PREP

Question Answer
What three mediators of inflammation are most likely to cause fever?prostaglandins, IL-1, TNF-alpha
What cell type produces IL-1activated macrophages
What 2 major cytokines are best known for their antiviral action?alpha and beta interferon
What 2 members of the complement pathway are anaphylotoxins?C3A, C5A
What disease is associated with anti-TSH receptor autoantibodies?Graves Disease
Arthritis, vasculitis, and glomerulonephritis are key signs of what type of hypersensitivity?III
What oncogene has been associated with Burkitt lymphoma?c-myc
What 2 kinds of tumor markers may be used in tracking prostate carcinoma?Prostate specific antigen Acid phosphate
What type of inheritance pattern does cystic fibrosis have?Autosomal recessive
What type of inheritance pattern does glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency have?X-linked recessive
What type of inheritance pattern does Huntington's disease have?Autosomal Dominant
What chromosomal deletion is associated with cri du chat?5P
What HLA type is associated with ankylosing spondylitisHLA-B27
What is the most common type of cancer in men? Women?Prostate, Breast
Waht is the name of the type of cell one looks for in a test for SLE that involves the patient's macrophages being mixed with injured leukocytes?LE cell
What 5 features are characteristic for CREST?Calcinosis, Raynaud's syndrome, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia
What type of immunodeficiency is associated with tetany as well as fungal and viral infections?DiGeorges
What effect do alcohol and barbiturates have on P450?induce
In order to minimize hearing damage, aminoglycosides should never be combined with what type of drug?Loop diuretics
Procainamide adn hydralazine share a common side effect that has system-wicde effects; what is it?Drug-induced lupus
What is the antidote to opioid overdose?Naloxone
If a patient present with a cool, dry, ropy right paraspinal area, is that most probably representative of a chronic problem or an acute problems?Chronic
Does BUM-BUL-BUM refer to the inferior or superior facets?superior
Sidebending occurs in what plane and axis?coronal plane, A-P axis

Session 2 Prep

Question Answer
What blood clotting factors are directly affected by a deficiency in Vit K?2, 7, 9, 10
Name three things that may trigger sickling in sickle cell anemia.hypoxia, dehydration, acidosis
What type of pneumonia may result in the production of cold antibodies? (Anti-RBC)Mycoplasma pneumonia
Deficiency of what may result in megaloblastic anemia and neurological symptoms?Vit B12
What type of cell will rise in number in the blood following a severe hemorrhage?Reticulocyte
If a patient were infected with parasites, what type of WBC would you expect to see increased in number?Eosinophils
Which type of leukemia is associated with the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?CML
What cell type is classic in the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease?Reed-sternberg cells
What disorder is associated with osteolytic lesions of the skull and pelvis, along with Bence Jones proteins in the urine?Multiple
What are the three features of Virchow's triad?Stasis, Endothelial injury, hypercoagulability (develop clots!)
What kind of aneurysm is often associated with polycystic kidney disease?Berry aneurysm
What type of congenital heart anomaly is characterized by a continuous machine-like murmurPDA (patent ductus arteriosis)
What is Eisenmenger syndrome?Reversal of a L-->R shunt to a R-->L shunt
In ischemic heart disease, what two different conditions can an ST segment elevation often present?Prince metals angina and MI
What are the 4 major complications that may follow a MI?arrhythmia, CHF, cardiogenic shock, muscle rupture
What kind of endocarditis are those with previously damaged or abnormal heart valves more at risk of getting? What are the common organisms responsible for this?Subacute Strep viradans and Gram (-) bacilli
What syndrome involving the pericardium may occur following an MI?Dresler syndrome (Pericarditis is inflammation and swelling of the covering of the heart (pericardium). The condition can occur in the days or weeks following a heart attack)
What are the 5 features of the Major Jones Criteria? (Dx for acute rheumatic fever)*JONES--Major*
Obvious (Carditis)
Nodule (Rheumatic-subcutaneous)
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea
**ยท Minor criteria:*
Inflammatory cells (leukocytosis)
Temperature (fever)
ESR/CRP elevated
Raised PR interval
Itself (previous Hx of Rheumatic fever)
Name the four major classifications of lung disease that represent obstructive lung diseaseAsthma
Chronic bronchitis
What restrictive lung disease is caused by the habitual inhalation of irritants such as coal dust and silica?pneumoconiosis
What is the drug of choice for vaginal candidiasis? Systemic candidiasis?1. Miconazole (vaginal)
2. fluconazole (systemic)
What is the drug of choice for (1) Neisseria meningitidis? (2) N. gonorrheae?1. Pen G
2. ceftriaxome
Name three anatomic aspects of the cervical vertebrae that differ from other spinal vertebrae1. Bifid spinous process
2.Transersarium foramen (vertebral canal)
3.Unconvertable joints of luckia (Uncinate process)
What ligament connects the dens to the foramen magnum?Alar
Which scalenes aid in elevation of the first rib?Ant. and Middle scalenes
What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?NAC
What anti-tuberculosis drug is notorious for its hepatotoxicity?INH (isoniazid)
Name the drugs that are P450 inducers.OC, phenytoin, barbituates, EtOH, rifamptin, levodopa, methadone (One Pharmaceutical Brings About Rapid Liver Metabolism)
Name the drugs that are P450 inhibitorsSulfonamides (ABx), Phenylbutazone (NSAID), Chloramphenicol (Abx), Isoniazid (INH), Dicumarol (anti-coag), Cimetidine (H2 blocker) (Some Pharmaceutical Classes Inhibit Drug Catabolism) --May cause drug overdose!--
Name the drugs that compete for renal transporters (in proximal tubule)Sulfonamides (ABx), Probenecid, Penicillin, Urate, Salicylates (aspirin), Thiazides (Some Pharmaceuticals Plus Urate Stop Transporters)
What are the drugs that are easily displaced from albumin?Sulfonamides, (Abx), Phenylbutazone (NSAID not used), Coumadin (anti-coag), Sulfonylureas (DMII) (Serum Proteins Can Spew)

Session 3 Prep

Question Answer
What are the 2 major etiologic agents for lobar pneumonia?Klebsiella pneumonia, Strep pneumonia
Name the 4 types of lung carcinoma1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Squamous cell
3. Small cell
4. Large cell
What is the most common nephrotic syndrome in children?Minimal change disease
What are the three components of the staghorn renal calculus? Is it a result of infectious agents, cancer, or gout?Infectious agents
1. Magnessium
2. Ammonia
3. Phosphate
What is the causative agent of syphillis? What is the DOC for the treatment of syphilis?Treponema pallidum DOC: Pen G
Which type of testicular germ cell tumor is characterized by very high production of AFP? Which type of ovarian germ cell tumor shares the same characteristic?Yolk sac--Endodermal sinus
What type of ovarian tumor is characterized by cysts lined with ciliated epitheliumSerous (an epithelial malignancy (carcinoma) that arises from the lining of a cavity that produces a serum-like fluid (a serous cavity)).
What are the 5 major risk factors for endometrial carcinoma?1. >40 y/0
2. Early menarchy
3. Late menopause
4. Null parity
5. Obesity
What are the 5 major risk factors for breast cancer?1. >40 y/0
2. Early menarchy
3. Late menopause
4. Null parity
5. Obesity
Koplik's spots in the mouth indicate what disease?Measles (Rubeola)
What type of esophageal diverticulum involves all layers of the esophagus?True esophageal diverticulum
What type of esophageal diverticulum involves only the mucosal layer?False esophageal diverticulum
What do cloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicillin have in common with respect to their particularly good ability to destroy certain pathogens?B-lactamase resistant
What generation of cephalosporins are cefamandole and cefoxitin?2nd generation
What type of gastritis does Helicobacter pylori cause, and why must it be treated ASAP?Gastritis type B; Risk of cancer!
What is the risk of develping colon cancer if one has familial polyposis? if one has Gardner's disease?Almost 100%
If a patient presents with lots of abdominal pain, very little or no blood in the stool, and skip lesions of the ileum or radiographic inquiry, from what disease would be most likely be suffering?Chrones Disease
What are the 3 components of Charcot's triad?1.Fever 2. RUQ pain 3. jaundice
What does Charcot's triad indicate in terms of abdominal disease?acute cholangitis
Compare the transmission routes and incubation times of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis BHepatitis A: fecal-oral, 2-6 weeks incubation
Hepatitis B: Parenteral, 2-6 months
If a patient's blood tests indicate that she is positive for anti-HBsAg, does that mean that she is currently suffering from an active Hepatitis B infection?NO! already immunized
If a patient presents with cirrhosis, new onset diabetes mellitus, and a bronze skin pigmentation, what disorder would top your list of differential diagnoses?Hemochromatosis is too much iron in the body
Compare osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis in terms of which finger joints each are more likely to affect.OA: DIP ; RA: MCP & PIP
Explain the Rules of Threes relevant to thoracic vertebrae.T1-3: SP is at same level as TP
T4-6: SP 1/2 segment below the corresounding TP
T7-9: SP is 1 level below correspounding TP
T11 = T4-6
T12 = T1-3
Name the false ribs8-12
What is the primary motion of the thoracic spine?Rotation
What ribs primarily move with pump-handle motion? bucket-handle motion? caliper motion?Pump-handle: 1-5
bucket-handle: 6-10
caliper handle: 11-12
Name the attachments of the diaphragm.Body & Discs of L1-3
Xiphoid process
Ribs 6-12 bilateral
Prostaglandins and bradykinins share what common feature in terms of their effect on how we feel when we get sick or injured?Pain and vasodilation
What cell type produces IL-1 and what cell type does IL- stimulate?Macrophages stimulate: CD4 T-cells
What inheritance pattern exists for a particular disease if there is no male-to-male transmission and the parents of the sick child are not sick?X-linked recessive
What HLA type do most with nmultiple sclerosis and narcolepsy share?HLA-DR2
What are the VDRL and FTA-ABS test results for an SLE patient? Why?VDRL = (+)--Checks for cardio-lichen antibodies, + for syphillis as weel
FTA-ABS = (-)--test for Trapanedium paladis presence (casitive agent for syphillis)
What clotting pathway does PTT test? PT test? bleeding time?PTT: Intrinsic and common
PT: Extrinsic and common
Bleeding time: platelet function
What does the Coombs test evaluate?Anti-RBC antibodies
What specific type of macromolecule is reliant on folic acid and vitamin B12 for its synthesis? How is this related to anemia?DNA!!--Megloblastic anemia (can't make DNA!)
Auer rods in myeloblasts is evidence of what myeloproliferative disorder?AML
Are aminoglycosides most effective against gram (+), gram (-), or bothGram negatives!
What type of arterialinflammation is associated with hypersensitivity to tobacco?Thromboangitis obliderance(Burgers Dz)
What disease do blue bloaters have? Is it an obstructive or restrictive lung disease?Chronic Broncritis-Obstructive
What is the DOC for Strep. pyogenes?Strep. pyogenes: Pen G
What is the DOC for Borrelia burgdorferiDoxycycline (2nd: Tetracycline)
What cell type is classic in Hodgkin's disease?Reed-sternburg cell
What type of arteriosclerosis is due to high serum calcium? due to malignant hypertension? due to old age? due to high lipid diet?High serum Ca: Munkaburgs
malignant HTN: hyperplastic arterioloschlerosis
old age: hyaline arteriololoschlerosis
high lipid diet: athrosclerosis
If a 3 year old Japanese boy presents with very red hands and soles of the feet, fever, and conjunctivitis, what arteritis does he most likely have?Kawasaki
Draw the alternate and common pathways of the complement cascade!DO IT!