Session Prep 13-15

mhewett's version from 2016-07-16 21:31

Session Prep 13

Question Answer
What is the largest joint in the body?Tibiofemoral (knee)
What muscle is the primary hip flexor? Hip extensor?Iliopsoas; Gluteus maximus
What ligament of the knee connects the anterior tibia to the posterior femur? Connects the posterior tibia to anterior femur? Prevents knee hyperextension?ACL; PCL; ACL
A patient tests positive on an anterior drawer test. What is your diagnosis?ACL tear
What tests are used to assess meniscal injury to the knee?(1) Apley compression test (2) McMurray's
What are the two divisions of the sciatic nerve?(1) Tibial (2) Peroneal (common fibular)
From what nerve roots does the femoral nerve arise?L2-4
A patient complains about superficial pain on the medial aspect of the leg half-way between the ankle and the knee. What dermatome is involved?L4
What dermatome encompasses the dorsum of the great toe?L5
The Achilles reflex assesses what nerve root? The patellar reflex assesses what nerve root?S1; L4
What degree range is considered normal for the femoral head angulation? For the Q angle?120-135 degrees; 10-12 degrees
What are the three positions of the foot necessary in order for it to be considered pronated?(1) Eversion (2) Dorsiflexion (3) Abduction
A patient presents with a supinated right foot. What can be said about this patients right fibular head?Posterior fibular head
What nerve may be damaged by a posterior fibular head?Peroneal (common fibular) nerve
What is the most common compartment syndrome?Anterior (leg) compartment syndrome
A patient presents with an ankle sprain. There is trace laxity of the joint, and the injury appears to only involve the talofibular ligament. What is the likely degree of this sprain? What is the "type" of this sprain?2nd degree; Type 1
What are the components of the O'Donahue's Triad? What another name for this?(1) ACL tear (2) MCL tear (3) Medial meniscus tear; Terrible triad
In what position is the ankle more stable?Dorsiflexion
What set of ligaments are the most common ones involved in ankle sprains?Lateral stabilizers (antiotalofibular, calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular)
What kind of blocker is prazosin? What kind of blocker or stimulator is clonidine, and what specific type of receptor does it affect?Prazosin: Alpha-blocker; Clonidine: Alpha-2 stimulator (specifically in the CNS)
What type of blocker is propranolol? Metoprolol? What specific receptors are blocked by these drugs?Propranolol: Non-selective beta-blocker (Beta-1 and Beta-2); Metoprolol: Beta-1 selective blocker
What specific receptors are stimulated by dobutamine? dopamine? Isoproterenol?Dobutamine: Beta-1; Dopamine: Dopamine and beta-1; Isoproterenol: Beta-1 and Beta-2
What cholinesterase inhibitor is the classic one used to test for myasthenia gravis?Edrophonium
Do organophosphates stimulate or inhibit cholinesterase? Why are they so highly toxic?Inhibit; because they are irreversible
What is the difference between denial and repression?Denial is the blocking of unacceptable information or perceptions from awareness, while repression is the blocking of unacceptable urges or feelings
When does REM begin when a narcoleptic falls into a narcoleptic state?At onset
What is the difference between central vs. obstructive sleep apnea?Central involves no respiratory effort, while obstructive has increased respiratory effort
What are the 5 stages of dying, as authored by elzabeth Kubler Ross, in order from the first stage to the last stage?(1) Denial (2) Anger (3) Bargaining (4) Grief (5) Acceptance
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in schizophrenia? Alzheimer's?Increased dopamine; Decreased ACh
Name what neurotransmitter is at an abnormal level in anxiety? Depression?Decreased GABA; Decreased NE, Serotonin, and Dopamine
Compare and contrast delirium and dementia in terms of impairment of consciousness, speed of onset, and reversibility.In delirium consciousness waxes and wanes. It is rapid and reversible. Dementia does not affect level of consciousness. It has a slow onset and is irreversible
What personality type is marked by one feeling as if they were better than others on a regular basis? What personality type is marked by a dramatic, emotional personality that may also exhibit some level of sexual promsicuity or other inappropriate sexual behavior?Narcististic; Histonic
To what one category of disorders do phobias, agoraphobia, and post-traumatic stress disorder belong?Anxiety disorders
How does the duration of symptoms compare between somatization disorder and conversion disorder?Somatization exists for most of ones life, while conversion disorders come and go
If a schizophrenic presents with hallucinations and delusions, what type of symptoms are these classified as under the heading of schizophrenia?Positive
At what point in the night does a person with major depression generally have the most difficulty getting to sleep/remaining asleep?Early morning
What type of epilepsy is marked by 3/sec spike and domes on EEG during the attack?Petit mal (absence) seizures
What are the 2 major signs of opioid intoxication? What are the 5 major signs of opioid withdrawal?(1) Euphoria (2) Apathy; (1) Nausea (2) Vomiting (3) Sweats (4) Fever (5) Muscle ache
What are the 4 risk factors for physical child abuse?(1) Low socioeconomic status (2) Prematurity (3) Parental drug use (4) History of physical abuse
What are the 2 major risk factors for child sexual abuse?(1) Parental drug use (2) Single parental home
List what percentage is "included" in +/- 1 standard deviations (SD), +/- 2, SD and +/- 3 SD1 SD: 68%; 2 SD: 95%; 3 SD 99.7%
In considering sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value, which one determine the probability that a negative test result is actually negative? Which one determines the probability that a positive test result is actually positive? Which one determines the probability that an ill patient will have a positive test? That a healthy patient will have a negative test?Negative predictive value; Positive predictive value; Sensitivity; Specificity
What is therm that is specifically defined as the number of people who have a specific disease at a given point in time per 100,000 people? What is the term that is specifically defined as the number of new people that develop a specific disease in one year per 100,000 people?Prevalence; Incidence
In a randomized clinical trial, what type of error results in the rejection of the null hypothesis even though the null hypothesis is true?Type I
In an observational cohort, what is the term for the ability of the test to actually test what it is meant to test? Term for how well the test results can be reproduced?Validity; Reliablility
What two components are necessary for someone to be involuntarily treated?(1) Mental illness (2) Danger to self or others
What are the 4 situations in which parental consent is not necessary in the treatment of a minor?(1) Emergency (2) Contraception/STIs (3) Care of pregnancy (4) Any minor who is emancipated
In considering Medicare and Medicaid, which one is concerned with the care of the poor (welfare recipients) and which one is considered with the care of the elderly or disabled?Poor: Medicaid; Elderly: Medicare
What "type" of bladder is created by spinal cord damage above the sacral cord? By damaged of the sensory nerves?Automatic; Atonic
What are the three major drugs/drug classes that enhance neuromuscular blockade?(1) Halothane (2) Aminoglycosides (3) Calcium channel blockers
What is a common indication for scopolamine use?Motion sickness
What are the 6 major side effects of estrogen treatment?(1) Skin pigmentation (2) Hypertension (3) Breakthrough bleeding (4) Breast tenderness (5) Nausea (6) Vomiting
What are the 3 major side effects of treatment with progesterones?(1) Hisutism (2) Depression (3) Weight gain
What blood disorder and liver disorder can result from OCPs?Blood: DVTs, Pulmonary embolisms; Liver: Bening adenomas
Why are gram positive bacteria blue/purple after gram staining - answer in terms of the bacteria's structural characteristics and how they influence the outcome of the staining procedure and the color they assume.Gram (+) bacteria have thick peptidoglycan walls that easily take up crystal violet when gram stained
What triggers the classical pathway for the complement system? What triggers the alternative pathway?Classic: Antigen antibody complexes (immune complexes; Alternative: (1) Endotoxin (2) Complex polysaccrides (3) Corbra venom
In considering botulinum toxin and tetanospasmin, which is generally produced in the body and which is placed, pre-formed, into the body?In the body: Tetanospasmin; Preformed: Botulinum
Compare and contrast hypotonic dehydration and hypertonic dehydration in terms of intracellular volume (ICV), extracellular volume (ECV), and the 2 listed causes of each.Hypotonic: Increased ICV, Decreased ECV (vomiting, diarrhea); Hypertonic: Decreased ICV, Decreased ECV (sweating, decreased ADH)
In what organ is angiotensin converting enzyme primarily found?Lungs

Session Prep 14

Question Answer
What part of the nervous system is activated by LSD? What street drug is renowned for causing very aggressive, fearless behavior?Sympathetic nervous system; Phencyclidine (PCP or Angel dust)
What opioid receptor is responsible for analgesia? Sedation? Respiratory depression?Mu; Kappa; Mu
Besides pain control, what other pharmacology use does codeine have?Antitussive (coughing)
How does fentanyl compare to morphine in terms of potency?8x stronger
What neurotransmitters do tricyclic amine antidepressants (TCA) block the reuptake of?Norepinephrine and Serotonin
Name 3 common foods naturally high in tyramine.(1) Cheese (2) Wine/beer (3) Chicken liver
What are the indiciations for the use of lithium?(1) Bipolar disorder (drug of choice) (2) Mania
What is the effect of nicotine on blood pressure (BP)?Low dose increases BP; High dose decreases BP
If the words "always," "never," "only," and related exclusive or all-inclusive words appear in an answer option, what does it often (not always) indicate about that answer?Most likely false
Should I continue to read the answer options even after I have come across an answer option that I am sure is correct?Yes

Session Prep 15

Question Answer
What type of reflex is defined as visceral stimuli producing a response in somatic structures innervated by the same vertebral segment?Viscersomatic reflex
What type of reflex is occurring when a chronic biceps strain results in respiratory difficulties secondary to diaphrogmatic dysfunction?Somatosomatic reflex
What is the sympathetic collateral ganglion associated with the greater splanchnic nerve? The lesser splanchnic nerve? The least splanchnic nerve?Celiac ganglion; Superior mesenteric ganglion; Inferior mesenteric ganglion
What nerve roots innervate the small intestine with the exception of a portion of the duodenum?T10-11
If a patient had an ovarian cyst, you might notice dysfunction in visceral or somatic structures innervated by what nerve roots? What cutaneous landmark would be included in possible reflex sites in the aforementioned situation?T10-11; Umbilicus
What effect does parasympathetic stimulation of the pupillary muscles cause?Miosis (pinpoint pupils)
What is the result of parasympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla? The GI sphincters? The penis?None; Relaxation; Erection
What is the result of sympathetic stimulation of the skeletal muscles? The salivary glands? The intestines?Increased glycogenolysis and strength; Decreased secretion; Decreased motility
What is the result of sympathetic stimulation of the arteries (be complete)?Arteries to skeletal muscle dilate; Arteries to viscera and skin constrict
What are the five major physiologic effects that stimulated H1 receptors have?(1) Increase nasal and bronchial secretion (2) Diarrhea/cramping (3) Bronchoconstriction (4) Itchy/swelling (5) Vasodilation
What is the main physiologic effect of stimulated H2 receptors?Stimulate gastric parietal cells (increase HCl secretion and intrinsic factor release)
What anesthetic agent has the potential to cause malignant hyperthermia?Halothane