ktepps's version from 2016-05-09 22:25

Section 1

Question Answer
zidovudine is a NRTI used in what animalscats
what is more potent against FIV?Lamivudine, IV=hemolysis=95% bioavaiolabile anyway
what is esential for NRTIS to become activatedthey are phsphorlated by the host enzymes
what are NRTIs used againstFeLV FIV Leuk virus
How are DPIs converted into monophospahte formby viral thimidine kinase*thats why they only work in infected cells
which DPI is toxic to catsValacyclovir
DPI panciclovir and Famicilovir are used in what animalcats
what DPI is topicalPanciclovir (pan to the face!)
acyclovir has best oral bioavailibility in what animaldog
Can a horse get acyclovirhas shit OBB but good for baby horse herps- give the big horses valacyclovir
Rimaidine is a M2 ion channel inhibitor best used for treatingequine influenze
Ribavirin is great against influenzas and herpaderp
MOA alkylating agentsform covalent bonds with DNA hence impeding replication
Plant serivativesup in the microtubes so no spindles
antimetablites uh block or sub divert metapilic pathways in DNA synthesis
actute hypoersensitivity in which anti cancer drugsDoxorubin and L-asparginase
acute tummor lysis syndrom often seen with?malignant lymphoma
BCG is baculle calmatter, used forSCC and Satcoids
what ate the side effects of BCG anaphylaxis
what anticancer drug is a folate anatagonist methotrexate
what does 5-flu inhibitDNA synthesis
alklating agents MOAcarbonium ion formation
What alklyating agent has the lowest tox but the slowest activation Chlorambucil
what alkylating agent is used for multiple myelomas Melphalan *M-M-M*
Which alkylating agent us used in refractory lymphoma and works with doxorubicin?decarbazine *DDs*

Section 2

Question Answer
what alkylating agent is hepatotoxic to dogs lomustine *Liver Lom*
if a horse eats this plant he ganna DIEtaxus spp
name NRTIszidovudine and stanpidine
name M2-ion channel inhibitorsrimantidine and amantadine
what is amantadines affect on the NMDA receptorNMDA receptor anatagonist so no painq
wtf do recombinant interferons doantivirals- immune modulating and anticancer properties, working cell to cell, sou needless
parasympathomimetic and sympathomimetic cause what type of pupilary responsepara-constricts (miosis) sympath-dilation (mydriasis)
opoids will create what type of pupillary response pinpoint
treat optical neuritis?IV glucocorticoids
wtf melaninlots of stuff binds to the whore
gram negative in the cat eyechlamydophila felis
horse eye bacteriagram neg pseudomonas
moraxella boviscattle pink eye
chloramphenical is a first choice option in who for whatsmall animals for corneal ulcers and bacterial conjuntivitis NOT horses bc its shitty for pseudomonas (EIK)
first choice antimicrobial corneal ulcers and bacterial conjunctivitustriple with Neomycin, bacitractin,poly B
which polyene is the treatment choice fir fusarium infection NATAMYCIN
dont put me in the eyecephalosporin and pen- hypersensitivity reactions
whihch antifungal is synergistic with amphotecrin Bflucystosine
corneal ulceration=breakdown of host collagen and glycosaminoglycans cause by whatMMPs and neutrophil serine proteinases/ exogenous mucrobial hydrolases cause this too
what proteinase inhibitor are used most oftenglycosaminoglycans heparin and serum
what should you never put on a damage cornea glucocorticoids
timolol acetatesympatholytic for glaucoma
uvietitis horse?para-sympatholytic-atropine, topicamine or scopolamine
anteriot uvetitis phanylephrine sympathomimetic
whats the fungus usually fucking up the guttural pouch and howto treataspergillus- use thiobendazole, enilconazole,and nystatin


Question Answer
what wouldyou use for nasal aspergillus in dogsEnilconazole and Clotrimazole *(Enilconazole has become the treatment of choice - more effective)*
who dont you get a anti-tussive to?productive cough, get that shit out
what drug breaks up mucus by breaking up disulphydryl bondsacetylecystine
foals get this fucked up shit?rhodococcus equi intracellular so treat it with somehting that has a high VD
what drug competes with pencicillin for active transport?probenicide
will atrial natriuretic peptide casue relaxation or constrition in the glom?relaxation
carbonicanhydrase inhibitorsincrease the excretion of bicarb, cause metibolic acidosis, treat GLAUCOMA
name the loop diureticsfurosemide, bumetanide, piratamide, torasemide (the furious bum pirate Toras)
what loop diuretic bloicks actice Na/CL trasport in the distal tubulethiazide
what are the main thiazides and what do they dochlorothiazide and hydrochlorothiazide and they decrease resporption of Na and Cl by to the symport system
Name the K sparring diureticsspironolactone(competes with aldosterone) amiloride and triamterene (stop pumps)-they treat oedema and ascites
what is the active metabolite in spironolactonecanrenone
what do you treat benign prostatic hyperplasia withfinesteride and cut off his balls
what receptors contract and relax the detrusor mmcontract M3(cholinergic parasymp) relaxation B2 inhibit the detrutor contraction
what do you use on dermatophytosisgrisefulvin
what is the gold standard for disseminated infections isPOLYENES!


Question Answer
what type of fungal infections are echinocandins effective againstinvasice forms of fungala infections soo Aspergillosis and candidasis
azoles work byinhibiting fingal CYP450 (lanosterol 14 alpha-demethylase)
griseofulvin works byinterferes with mitosis by binding microtubules
eichonocandins do two things (oooahhh)inhibit 1,3 B glucan synthesis-disruption of the fungal cell wall & disruption of cell wall mannoproteins exposure of Ag and greater immune system response
which antifungals MOA is non-competitive inhibition of squalene epoxidase ?terbinafine (allyamine)
what antificgal cannot be used alone dufe to rapid emergence of resistance?flucystosine
which antifingal has limited side effectsterbinafine (fine looking terban with no effects on ur outfit!)
which antifungals have teterogenic side effects: griseofulvin and triasole (tri to have grisse babies)
Question Answer
which antifungal causes renal toxicityamphotericin B
what neurotransmitter stimulates appetiteGABBA (gabba makes ya ass fatta)
what does serotonin increase do to your appetite5-ht inhibits appetite
diazepam and oxazepam effect appetites through what mechanism and in what animals gabba inhibition of the satiety center in the hypothalamus - used in cats **also cause sedation**
what is the anti-obesity drug in dogs and what is the active ingredientseltrol and it is Dirlotapide
what are the neurotransmitters involved in vomitingdopamine, histamine serotonin acetylecholine and substance P
what are the two higher CNS centers concerned with emesiscerebral cortex and limbic system
name some peripherally acting/reflex emeticsipecac syrup, hydrogen peroxide, saline
apomorphine hydrochloride is a centrally acting emetic preferred in what speciesdogs
cylazine is preferred as a centrally acting emetic in what speciescats (a2 adrenergic receptor agonist)
what is the side effect of Xylazinebradycardia
why is apomorphine not used in catscauses marked excitement


Question Answer
apomorphine is contraindicated in what type of patientsshould never use in cases of central depression, can cause depression of the respiratory center
apomorphine hydro stimulates what receptors in the CTS?: dopaminergic
Question Answer
you should not use phenothiazines in patients who suffer from ?seizures (it lowers the threshold)
which drug actives at the CTZ-effectively antagonizes apomorphine induced emesismetoclopramide
what is metoclopramide used forcontroles emesis induced by a variety of "blood borne and peripheral causes"
which drug actives at the CTZ controls emesis mediated by CTZ and emisis induced by chemotherapeutic agentsperipheral 5HT3 serotonins antagonists (ondansetron)
what drug is used to prevent motion sickness in dogsNK-1 receptor blockers (maropitant citrate)
which drug activates at the CTZ and has a prokinetic effectmetoclopramide
how do anticholinergic drugs exert antiemetic activity ?1)inhibit vagal afferent impulses, 2)relaxing GI sm mm spasms 3) inhibit gastroenteric secretions
what are the main complications of gastric anti-secretory drugsachlorhydria condition, resulting in malabsorption of certain nutrients esp Vit b12 and iron
which anticholinergic has selective action on gastric M1 receptorspirenzepine-inhibits gastric acid secretion by 50 to 60 % with less antimusc side effects
atropine and propantheline are both quartenary amines derived with non selctive action in the GIT. What receptors do they act onM1 M2 M3
what action do atropine and propantheline have on the GITdecrease gastric motility and secretions
whihch H2 receptor antagonist has the longest duration of action and is most potentfamotidine
what H2 receptor antagonist is the preferred drug in heptic dz conditionsnizatidine bc it is 100% renal excretion
o no! someone ate a bunch of acetaminophen, what drug should you give to prevent toxicity ?cimetidine (inhibits CYP450 system so it wont be metabolized
what are the side effects of H2 antagonistsrebound acid hypersecretion and relapse of gastrodenal ulcers
what are the side effects of cimetidinethromnocytopeniua and antiandrigenic in humans


Question Answer
what PGE1 anolog prevents rebound acid hyopersecretionmisiprostol
what receptor does pirenzepin blockcholinergic receptor blocker -anti ulcer
what receptor does omeprazole block ?blocks proton pumps
what receptor does misoprostol work onstimulates prostoglandin receptors
what receptors does cimetidine work onblocks the H2 histamine receptor
Rank the following H2 Receptor *antagonist drugs in order from most potent to least potent= Drugs; Ranitidine, Nizatidine, Famotidine, Cimetidinefamotidine, ranitidine, nizatidine, cimetidine
which H2 receptor has the highest bioavaliablity at 97%nizatidine
what are the non-systemic acids and systemic acids?nons=salt of aluminium, magnesium and calcium, systemic-sodium bicarbonate
which antacid has a laxative effectmagnesium hydroxide
what is the antacid of choice for mild ruminal acidosisaluminum hydroxide
what are the adverse effects of proton pump inhibitorschronic use=bacterial overgrowth, asperation pneumonia with megaesophagus, inhibit CYP 450 which interferes with other drugs
what is the problem with the systemic antacid (sodium bicarbonate)can induce metabolic acidosis
information on sucralfatecytoprotective binds to and inactivates bile acids and pepsin, stimulates the secretion of bicarb, should not be combined with antacids
sucralfate requires what type of environment to be activatedacidic!


Question Answer
which cytoprotective drug should be used with caution in catsbismuth subsalicylate
what is the most commonly used cholinergic agonistbethanechol
which drug enhances the release of Ach, and increasessensitivity of the intestinal sm mm to Ach while blocking the dopamine effects?metoclopromide
what are two clinical indications for metaclopramidereflux esophagitis and GI motility
what is the broadest spectrum prokineticcisapride
what opoid should not be used on catsdiphenoxylate
what GI protectant and absorbent can absorb E coli enterotoxinsbismuth subsalicylate and activated charcoal
which GI drug is the best for emergency treatment of poisoningactivagted charcoal
which GI protectant is clinically indicated for pruitus associated with increase bile acidscholestyramine (side effects steatorrhea from less fat uptake and less fat soluble vit uptake)
what is used for the treatment of simple colon impactions and ear waxdocusated sodium
what is the most commonly used bulk laxative in horsespsyllium SAND IMPACTION
what saline purgative can be used in the treatment of heptaic encephalopathylactulose
what used repeatedly in horses causes superpergationanthraquinones
what is not recommended in the treatment of frothy bloatfish oil


Question Answer
what drugs interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesisB lactams vancomycin bacitracin cycloserine
what drugs act on the cell membranepolymixin and colstin
what drugs work on protein synthesis at 30stertracyline and aminoglycosides
what drugs interfere at the 50schloramphenical and friends, macrolides and lincomycin
what drugs interfere with folic acid synthesissulfonnamidess and diaminopyrimadines
what are the bactericidal drugsmetronidazoles, B lactams, aminoglycos, fluros, polymyxin and colistin
what drugs interfere with bacterial nucleic acid synthesisrifampin Fluroquinolones and metronidazole
what are the five enteric sulfasSuccinylsulfathiazole, Sulfasalazine, Sulfaquinoxaline, Sulfaguanidine, Phthalylsulfathiazole (Sulfathalidine)
what do you give a dog with colitissulfasalazine
what sulfa combos can induce hepatic necrosis in dogstrim+sulfadiazine and trim + sulfamethoxazole
what sulfa for a cowormetoprim


Question Answer
sulfa wont work on whatpseudomonas aeruginosa
why is cloxacillin specialits semisythetic so it works on beta lactamase enzyme producers
which isoxazolyl pens have good oral absorptionCODs give good oral C-loxacillin O-xacillin D-icloxacillin
which pen is not excreted bu the kidneynaficillin through bile
what can be some side effects of sulfacrystal uria hematuria, KCS heptic issues. RENAL TOX
what is added to pen to give it a longer half lifebenzathine
what cephs 1st gen are taken orallycefadroxil and cephalexin
ceftifor gets metablized into whatdesfuroylcetiofur
what ceph is good at crossing the BBBcefuroxime
what ceph gets excreted with bileceftraixone and cefoperazone
what amino has the broadest spectrumamikacin
what are three fucky things that aminos causenephrotoxic, ototoxic and neuromuscular blockade
what aminoglyco is the most renal toxicgentamicin