shanachka's version from 2016-03-10 22:58


Question Answer
Which of the following is present in the highest amount normally? neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophilaneutrophils
Which inflammatory cytokines do macrophages secrete?IL-1, IL-6, IL-12, TNF-alpha
Which cells are the first to arrive at site of inflammation?neutrophils
Which 3 cytokines stimulate neutrophils?IL-1, IL-3, TNF-alpha
Which positively charged protein is located within the granules of eosinophils?major basic protein
Which leukocyte reacts to parasitic infections?eosinophils
Which 2 organs are considered to be primary?thymus, bone marrow
The thymus continues to grow throughout life. True or False.false
Where do you find immature thymocytes in the thymus?cortex
Besides being the site of B cell and T cell origin, what else is the bone marrow useful for?fat depot, site of hematopoiesis
Which events take place in secondary lymphoid organs?mature lymphocytes interact with antigens
Which organs are considered to be secondary?lymph nodes, spleen, malt, galt
Where are plasma cells found in lymph nodes?medulla
How do naive T cells enter lymph nodes?via high endothelial venules
Which type of antigens does the spleen react to?blood-borne
Where do old and defective RBCs get destroyed in the spleen?red pulp
Where are T cells found in the spleen?PALS, white pulp
_________ are molecules that are released from stressed or necrotic cells and are recognized by the innate immune system.DAMPs
What are the targets of the innate immune system called?PAMPs
The innate immune system responds the same way to repeat encounters with a microbe. True or False.true
Why does the innate immune system respond the same way to repeat encounters with a microbe?it lacks memory
Name 1 chemical barrier of the innate immune system.acidity of the stomach
Which leukocyte molecule does P-selectin and E-selectin bind to?sialyl-lewis x
What happens when there's a defect in the sialyl-lewis molecule?no P-selectin and E-selectin binding = no rolling
What is the structure called when a phagosome and lysosome fuse together?phagolysosome
What occurs in a respiratory burst?NADPH oxidase converts oxygen to superoxide
Which disease results from a defect in NADPH oxidase?CGD
What is the macrophage activating cytokine?IFN-gamma
Which surface markers are present on NK cells?CD16, CD56
Which cells play a role in ADCC?NK cells
Diagnose: 4 month old boy with recurrent hospitalizations because of severe bronchopneumonia and several episodes of acute otitis media with non-purulent drainage of mucus and +ve bacterial culture. Medical history included neonatal sepsis and delayed umbilical cord detachment. Lab results showed marked leukocytosis with predominance of neutrophils.LAD
Diagnose: 2 year old boy has multiple skin infections involving staphylococcus, pseudomonas, aspergillus, serratia, and nocardia. PE shows generalized tender lymphadenopathy. BTs reveal an elevated ESR and morphologically normal WBCs and neutroophilia. The nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is -ve.NADPH deficiency
What are the 3 pathways of complement?classical, MBL, alternative
Which pathway(s) of complement belong to the innate immune system?MBL, alternative
Which pathway(s) of complement belong to the adaptive immune system?classical
How is each pathway of complement activated?classical: immune complex, MBL: mannose on pathogen surface, alternative: pathogen surface
What is the common step for all complement pathways?C3
What is the main role of C3b?opsonization
Which complement proteins are important for anaphylaxis?C3a, C4a, C5a
Which complement protein is important for chemotaxis of neutrophils?C5a
Which complement proteins form MAC?C5-9
Which 2 routes of administration will elicit the most vigorous immune responses?sub-q and intradermal
The IV route of administration will be taken up by which immune organ?spleen
The intraperitoneal route of administration will be taken up by which immune organ?spleen
The oral route of administration will be taken up by which immune organ?malt
Haptens are small molecules that are very immunogenic on their own. True or False.false
What is the importance of adjuvants?increase the immunogenicity of antigen
How are adjuvants used in a clinical setting?boost immune response of an antigen that has low immunogenicity or when only small amounts of antigen are available (i.e. vaccine)
Do adjuvants induce or enhance an immune response? Or both?enhance
Adjuvants increase local inflammation. True or False.true
Adjuvants increase the half life of vaccine antigens. True or False.true
What is an epitope?structure on antigen that the antibody recognizes
Which Ig's do t-independent antigens produce?IgM
What is cross-reactivity?when an antibody with specificity to 1 epitope binds weakly to another epitope
What is the job of the Rag enzyme and Tdt enzyme?rag enzyme splices segments and tdt enzyme adds/removes nucleic acids from ends of segments in order for them to properly seal together
What is the function of AIRE?present self-antigens that aren't present in the thymus
What are the surface markers of Treg cells?CD4, CD25, Foxp3, CTLA-4
Which MHC molecule plays a role in endogenous antigen recognition and which plays a role in exogenous?MHC I: endogenous, MHC II: exogenous
Which pathway of antigen recognition does the TAP protein play an important role?endogenous
IL-12 stimulates the differentiation of T helper cell into _________.Th1
_________ stimulates the differentiation of T helper cell into Th2.IL-4
_________ stimulates the differentiation of T helper cell into Th17.TGF-beta, IL-21
Which cytokines to Th1, Th2, and Th17 cells secrete?Th1: IFN-gamma, Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-13, Th17: IL-17, IL-22
MHC I are encoded by gene regions _________ and MHC II are encoded by _________.MHC I: A, B, C; MHC II: DP, DQ, DR
Where are MHC I and II molecules found?MHC I: all nucleated cells, MHC II: only APCs
Only identical twins can exchange tissue/graft without rejection. True or False. true
Which surface markers do mature B cells have?CD19, CD20, CD21
Which surface marker is a stem cell marker for B cells?CD34
Which B cell surface marker is present from beginning to end of B cell differentiation?CD19
What does CD40 on B cells bind to?CD40L on T cells
Where do B1 cells develop from?fetal liver
Important for defense against pediatric bacterial infections. B1 or B2 cells.B1
Antibody isotype that is most abundant in serum.IgG
Antibody isotype that is most abundant overall.IgA
Antibody isotype that can cross the placenta.IgG
Antibody isotype that provides mucosal immunity.IgA
Antibody isotype that provides immunity against parasitic infections and allergies.IgE
Antibody isotype important for opsonization.IgG
A healthy 6 year old receives a deep puncture wound to his foot by stepping on a rusty nail. Clostridium tetani enters his blood stream. The patient receives a tetanus booster 1 year ago. Which Ig isotype will be the most important contributor to neutralization of the toxin produced by the bacterium that will trigger destruction of the toxin-antibody complex by phagocytic cells?IgG
Type 1 hypersensitivity is _________ mediated.IgE
Give a couple examples of type 1 allergy, anaphylaxis
Type 2 hypersensitivity is _________ and _________ mediated.IgM, IgG
Hemolytic disease of newborn is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?type 2
Goodpasture's and Myasthenia Gravis are examples of which type of hypersensitivity?type 2
Serum sickness and arthus reaction are examples of which type of hypersensitivity?type 3
Type 4 hypersensitivity is _________ mediated.t cell
Give a couple examples of type 4 dermatitis, TB, graft rejection, type 1 diabetes