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Hi Yield 83.0 - 89.2.6

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mhewett's version from 2016-07-17 02:49

Section 83.0 Signal Transduction

_____ refers to how a cell translates a ligand binding to that cell into an action undertaken by that cell. Signal transduction
Signal transduction is carried out by a group of proteins known as _____. Secondary messengers
What are the five major second messenger systems? (1) IP3 (2) Cyclase (3) Caclium-calmodulin (4) Steroid (5) Tyrosine kinase
What are the two major second messenger systems that do not use G proteins? (1) Steroid (2) Tyrosine kinase
What subunit of a G protien determines if it has stimulatory or inhibitory activity? Alpha subunit
In the IP3 mechanism of signal transduction, binding of the G protien activates what enzyme? Phospholipase C (PLC)
What is the function of phospholipase C (PLC) in the IP3 mechanism of signal transduction? Liberate DAG and IP3 from membrane lipids
What is the function of IP3 in the IP3 mechanism of signal transduction? Stimulates ER to release calcium
What enzyme is activated in the final step of the IP3 mechanism of signal transduction? Protein kinase C (PKC)
What major second messenger system triggers G proteins to release GDP and replace the GDP with GTP? Cyclase mechanism
What enzyme produces cAMP? What enzyme breaks down cAMP? Adenylyl cyclase; Phosphodiesterase
What enzyme is activated in the final step of the adenylate cyclase mechanism of signal transduction? Protein kinase A (PKA)
What drug class does sildenafil belong to? What is its primary indication? What major second messenger system does it effect? Phosphodiesterase inhibitors; Erectile dysfunction; Cyclase second messeger system
What enzyme is activated in the final step of the calcium-calmodulin mechanism of signal transduction? Myosin light chain kinase
Do steroids bind to extracellular or intracellular receptors? Intracellular receptors
What major second messenger system stimulates DNA transcription, causing mRNA to be made and, eventually, protein synthesis to be initiated? Steroid second messeger system
What major second messenger system brings about a cellular response to insulin? Tyrosine second messeger system

Section 84.0 Nystagmus

What is the Hall Pike Bithermal Caloric test is used to assess? Health of labyrinth
In the Hall Pike Bithermal Caloric test, should cold water should induce nystagmus to the same or opposite irrigated ear? Warm water? Opposite; Same; MNEMONIC: COWS
What are the two general classifications of nystagmus? Which is most common? Which is associated with equal speed movement of the eyes? (1) Pendular (2) Jerk; Jerk; Pendular
What are the two major classifications of jerk nystagmus? (1) Horizontal (2) Vertical
What are the three types of horizontal nystagmus? (1) Periodic alternating (2) Gaze-evoked (3) Vestibular
What type of horizontal nystagmus is due to vestibulocerebellar disease or bilateral visual loss? Periodic alternating
What type of horizontal nystagmus is due to alcohol intoxication, cerebellar disease, or brainstem lesions? Gaze-evoked

Section 85.0 Cochlea

The two major components of the cochlea are the cochlear base and helicotrema. What component is sensitive to low frequency sound? High frequency sound? Cochlear helicotrema; Cochlear base

Section 85.1 Hearing Apparatus

Does damage to the cochlea yield unilateral or bilateral hearing loss? Cortical damage? Thalamus damage? Unilateral; Bilateral; Bilateral

Section 85.2 Tuning Fork Tests

What tuning fork test is used to determine lateralization? Air and bone conduction? Weber; Rinne
In general, is otitis media a cause of conductive or sensineuronal hearing loss? Aging? Conductive; Sensineuronal
How does a noisy environment effect a patient with conductive hearing loss? Sensineuronal hearing loss? Improves hearing; Worsens hearing
Does a person with conductive hearing loss speak louder? How about a patient with sensineuronal hearing loss? No; Yes (cant hear self)
In a patient with conductive hearing loss, does the weber test localize to the good or bad ear? How about in a patient with sensineuronal hearing loss? Bad ear; Good ear
In a patient with conductive hearing loss which is better, bone or air conduction? How about in a patient with sensineuronal hearing loss? Bone conduction; Air conduction

Section 86.0 Control of Muscle Tone

What part of a muscle protects it from overstretching? What part of a tendon protects it from overstretching? Muscle spindle; Golgi tendon organ
Both muscle spindle fibers and golgi tendon organs prevent muscle and tendon overstreching respectively. However muscle spindle fibers do so by measuring _____, while golgi tendon organs do so by measuring _____. Muscle length; Muscle tension
When activated, do muscle spindle fibers cause stimulation or inhibition of alpha-motoneurons? Golgi tendon organs? Stimulation; Inhibition
Which is responsible for deep tendon reflexes, golgi tendon organs or muscle spindle fibers? Muscle spindle fibers

Section 87.0 Skeletal Muscle Activation

What is the junction created between a nerve fiber and skeletal muscle called? What neurotransmitter is stored in the vesicles of these nerve fibers? Neuromuscular junction; Acetylcholine
What enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of acetylcholine? Degradation? Choline acetyl transferase; Acetylcholinesterase
What type of nicotinic receptor is found on all skeletal muscle? All post-ganglionic neurons? Type II; Type I

Section 87.1 Muscle Types

What are the three types of muscle in the body? Which type does not have its contraction mediated by calcium binding to troponin? (1) Smooth (2) Cardiac (3) Skeletal; Smooth muscle
What are the two types of skeletal muscle in the body? (1) Red (2) White
What component of a sarcomere never changes in length? A band
What type of skeletal muscle, red or white, has slow fibers? Large muscles? High strength? High oxidative ability? Red; White; White; Red
What type of skeletal muscle, red or white, has fast fibers? Low glycolytic ability? High blood supply? High number of mitochondria? White; Red; Red; Red
What type of skeletal muscle, red or white, is myoglobin positive? Myglobin negative? Red; White
What is the primary type of metabolism in red skeletal muscle? White skeletal muscle? Oxidation; Glycolysis

Section 87.2 Skeletal Muscle Contraction

What are the two regulatory proteins involved in muscle contraction? What regulatory protein partially blocks the myosin binding sites? (1) Tropomyosin (2) Troponin; Tropomyosin
The role of _____ is to regulate binding of myosin head groups to actin. Tropomyosin
When calcium binds to troponin C it results in the movement of _____, thus revealing the myosin binding sites. Tropomyosin

Section 88.0 Pulmonary Physiology

Regions of the lungs that have no gas exchange areas are known as _____. Dead space
What molecule is used to reduce alveloar surface tension by decreasing the attraction of water molecules to one another? Surfactant (lecithin)
What type of pneumocytes produce surfactant? Type II pneumocytes
Infants born at or before _____ weeks are at risk having in sufficient lecithin. These infants are said to be _____. 34 weeks; Premature
To effectively maintain open airways the lecithin:sphingomyelin ration must be greater than _____. 2:01
Which have a greater tendency to collapse, small or large alveoli? Collapse of many alveoli results in _____. Small alveoli; Atelectasis
What is the single most important determinant of airway resistance? How do bronchodilators effect this? Diameter of the airway; Increase diameter
What is the most important muscle for breathing? What nerve innervates it? What nerve roots is it associated with? Diaphragm; Phrenic n; C3-5
_____ refers to the distensibility of the lung and chest wall. Compliance
Does a patient with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency have a high, low, or normal compliance? Elastance? High; Low
Does a patient with ankylosing spondylitis or acute rib fracture have a high, low, or normal compliance? Elastance? Low; High
What is the term for the pressure within the alveolus? Pressure around the lung? Transmural pressure; Intrapleural pressure
Is emphysema an obstructive or restrictive lung disease? Is lung compliance increased, decreased, or normal? Obstructive; Increased
Is lung complicance increased, decreased, or normal in patients with restrictive lung diseases? Decreased
Does intrapleural pressure become more positive, negative, or stay the same during inspiration? Expiration? More negative; More positive
What part of the CNS allows for voluntary control of breathing rate? Cerebral cortex
What sensors in the body mediate the most immediate response to an increase in serum CO2? Peripheral chemoreceptors
What is the primary role of peripheral chemoreceptors? Detect decreasing levels of oxygen
What part of the pons stimulates inspiration? Limits inspiration? Apneustic center; Pneumotaxic center
What is the name for the reflex decrease in respiration triggered by lung stretch receptors? Hering-Breuer reflex
What type of receptors control the cough reflex? Irritant receptors
What type of pathologic breathing pattern is characterized by waxing and waning in amplitude (volume of air inspired)? Cheyne-Stokes respiration
What type of pathologic breathing pattern is characterized by very deep and, often, rapid respiration in response to cases of extreme metabolic acidosis? Kussmaul breathing
What type of pathologic breathing pattern is characterized by quick, shallow breathing followed by periods of apnea? Biot breathing
When alveolar oxygen concentration drops, do the blood vessels nearby dilate or constrict? Why? Constrict, this mechanism ensures blood is shunted towards those parts of the lung that are better oxygenated
Is blood pressure higher, lower, or the same in the pulmonary circulation compared to the systemic circulation? Lower
What zone of the lung is associated with the apex? Base? Zone 1; Zone 3
What zone of the lung has the highest alveolar pressure? Lowest? Zone 1; Zone 3
What zone of the lung has the highest blood flow? Zone 3
What zone of the lung has the highest ventilation? Lowest? Zone 3; Zone 1
What zone of the lung has the V/Q ratio? Lowest Zone 1; Zone 3
Is V/Q increased, decreased, or unchanged in a patient with a pulmonary embolism? Airway obstruction? Increased; Decreased
When V/Q is equal to zero, that is termed a(n) _____. Shunt
What are the two major causes of pulmonary edema? (1) Left-sided heart failure (CHF) (2) Damage to pulmonary capillary membranes (e.g. ARDS)
In an obstructive lung disease is functional residual capacity increased, decreased, or unchanged? Residual capacity? Total lung capacity? Increased; Increased; Increased
In a restrictive lung disease is functional residual capacity increased, decreased, or unchanged? Residual capacity? Total lung capacity? Decreased; Decreased; Decreased
What lung volume represents normal breathing effort? Deep breath? Forced exhalation? Tidal volume; Inspiratory capacity; Functional residual capacity

Section 89.0 Frank-Starling Law

According to Frank-Starling law, as preload increases, contractility _____. Increases
According to Frank-Starling law, as preload increases, cardiac output _____. Increases

Section 89.1 Electrical Pathway of the Heart

All impulses from the atria to the ventricle must pass through the _____. AV node

Section 89.1.0 Cardiac Action Potential

What is the pacemaker of the heart? Where does it conduct impulses to? Sinoatrial (SA) node; AV node
The AV node conducts impulses to the ventricles, via the _____ and _____, which cause the ventricles to contract simultaneously after brief delay. Bundle of his, purkinje fibers
What part of a cardiac action potential is characterized by phase 0? 1? 2? 3? 4? 0: Depolarization; 1: Short moment of repolarization; 2: Plateau; 3: Repolarization; 4: Resting membrane potential
What phase of a cardiac action potential is marked by sodium entry into the cell? Predominant exit of potassium from the cell? Phase 0; Phase 3
What phase of a cardiac action potential is marked potassium moving out of the cell, along with a decrease in sodium entry? Calcium entry into the cell, with continued potassium exit? Phase 1; Phase 2
What phase of a SA node action potential is responsible for its automaticity? Phase 4
What phase of a SA node action potential is associated with the upstroke (depolarization)? Repolarization? Phase 0; Phase 3

Section 89.2 Physiology of Cardiac Arrhythmias

What component of an EKG represents depolarization of the atria? Repolarization of the ventricle? P wave; T wave
What component of an EKG represents the start of depolarization of the ventricle? Q wave
What component of an EKG represents depolarization of the ventricle right before contraction? QRS complex
What segment of an EKG represents the period of time in which the impulse is conducted through the AV node? PR interval
What segment of an EKG is lengthened during an AV block (heart block)? PR interval
Is the PR interval increased, decreased, or unchanged by sympathetic stimulation? Decreased
Will damage to the surface of the heart cause an ST segment elevation or depression? Elevation
Will damage to the heart, not occuring at the heart surface, cause an ST segment elevation or depression? Depression
What segment of an EKG represents the entire period of time during which the ventricles are depolrized and then repolarized? QT interval

Section 89.2.1 Sinus Rhythm Anomalies

What part of the heart generates abnormal sinus rhythms? SA node
What are the three most common etiologies for sinus tachycardia? (1) Fever (2) Sympathetic stimulation (3) Toxicities

Section 89.2.2 AV Block

What part of the heart generates heart blocks on EKG? AV node
Does an AV block cause lengthening or shortening of the PR interval? Lengthening

Section 89.2.3 Premature Contractions

Premature contractions are caused by _____. Ectopic foci
Where can ectopic foci originate? atria, AV junction, ventricle
Question Answer
Foci originating in the atria causepremature atria contractions (PACs)
Foci originating in the AV junction causepremature contractions with P wave superimoposed on QRS (so not visible)
Foci originating in the ventricles causepremature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
memorize

Section 89.2.4 Paroxysmal Tachycardia

What type of arrhythmia is caused by re-entrant pathways that allow impulses to loop-back causes the same tissue to be rapidly excited? Paroxysmal tachycardia

Section 89.2.5 Ventricular Fibrillation

What is the most serious of the cardiac arrhythmia? Ventricular fibrilation

Section 89.2.6 Atrial Fibrillation

What type of bundle branch block occurs in V5 or V6? What type of bundle branch block occurs in V1 or V2? Left bundle branch block; Right bundle branch block
What type of arrhythmia is characterized by an EKG that seems to wind around the same baseline? Torsade de Pointe
What type of arrhythmia is characterized by an EKG that has an erratic pattern with no discernable baseline? Ventricular fibrilation