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Hi Yield 42.6.2 - 49.0

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mhewett's version from 2016-07-10 01:17

Section 42.6.2 Varicella Zoster Virus

What is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles? Varciella-zoster virus (VZV)
What disease is marked by dew drop on rose petal lesions? What disease is marked by painful fluid-filled vessicles that erupt in a group on an erythematous base along a dermatome? Chickenpox; Shingles (herpes zoster)
What is the screening test of choice for VZV? Tzanch smear
What is the drug of choice for severe VZV infections? What is the drug of choice for neuropathic pain associated with the diease? Acyclovir; Gabapentin

Section 42.6.3 Epstein-Barr Virus

What are the three organisms associated with exudative pharyngitis? Which is also associated with severe fatigue? (1) S. pyogenes (2) Adenovirus (3) EBV; EBV
What is the most carcinogenic virus known to man? EBV
What virus is known to cause severe fatigue, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis with exudates, and splenomegaly? What is the diagnostic test of choice for this disease? EBV; Monospot test (heterophile antibodies)
What neoplam is said to have a starry sky appearance on histology? What virus is often associated with this disease? Burkitt's lymphoma; EBV

Section 42.6.4 Cytomegalovirus

Is most of the population CMV antibody positive or negative? What population does this viru usually cause symptoms? CMV Ab (+); Immunocompromised
What type of antibodies are said the have owls' eye intranuclear inclusios (i.e. very prominent intranuclear inclusions)? CMV antibodies
What is the drug of choice for CMV infections? Are most people with this virus symptomatic? Ganciclovir; No
What is the difference in the infectious mononucleosis of EBV and CMV? EBV is heterophile positive, while CMV is heterophile negative (also, CMV is not associated with pharyngitis)
What virus is known to cause a pizza pie retina? What is the treatment? CMV; Ganciclovir (followed by valganciclovir)

Section 42.6.5 Human Herpes Virus 6

What is the causative agent of roseola? What is another name for the disease? Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV 6); 6th disease
What disease is marked by an abrupt onset fever that lasts 1 to 5 days and a pink rash on trunk that occurs only after the fever ends? What is the causative agent? Roseola; Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV 6)

Section 42.6.6 Human Herpes Virus 8

What is the most common cancer in AIDS patients? What is the causative agent? Kaposi's sarcoma; Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV 8)

Section 43.0

What is the most common type of polio? What is the most damaging form? Abortive poliomyelitis; Paralytic poliomyelitis
What determines what type of polio a patient will get? Patient's immune status
What condition is associated with fever, sore throat, and tender vesicles in the posterior half of the oropharynx? What is the causative agent? Herpangina; Coxsackie A virus
What condition is marked by vesicular rashes on the hands and feet as well as ulcerations to the mouth? What is the causative agent? Hand-foot-mouth disease; Coxsackie A virus
Which type of coxsackie virus is associated with myocarditis? Bornholm disease? Coxsackie B virus; Coxsackie B virus
What is the number one cause of gastroenteritis in children? Rotavirus
Which of the three strains of influenza results in a minor, self-limited illness? Influenza C
Which of the three strains of influenza is said to be epidemic? Endemic? Influenza B; Influenza A
What envelope protein on influenza helps bind the virus to the cell surface to initiate infection? What antigen is associated with this protein? Hemagglutinin; H antigen
What envelope protein on influenza allows for the release of newly produced virus from the cell? What antigen is associated with this protein? Neuraminidase; N antigen
In terms of influenza, _____ occur annually. They are due to minor mutations of the viral RNA that occur over the year. Drifts
In terms of influenza, _____ occur approximately every 10-11 years. They are due to reassorment of viral RNA, with recombination of human influenza virus RNA with influenza viral RNA acquired from other animal. Shifts
Which of the three strains of influenza undergo shits? Influenza A
What disease is associated with Koplik's spots, rash, and a high fever? What is the treatment? Measles; Vitamin A (children) or Ribavirin (adults)
What diease is associated with the steeple sign on x-ray? What is the causative agent? Croup; Parainflueenza virus
What is another name for laryngotracheobronchitis? What is the causative agent? Croup; Parainflueenza virus
What disease is associated with a harsh barking cough? What is the characteristic sign seen on x-ray? Croup; Steeple sign
What are the three most common manifestation of mumps? (1) Parotitis (2) Orchitis (3) Mumps aseptic meningitis
What is the number one cause of lower respiratory infection in infants? RSV
In adults, does a RSV cause a URI or LRI? In children? In elderly? URI, LRI, LRI
What virus causes measles? German measels? Rubeola; Rubella
Which is more severe measles or german measles? Measles
What are the two most common causes of the common cold? (1) Rhinovirus (2) Coronavirus
What virus is known to causes severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? What is the treatment? Coronavirus; Interferon alpha + steroid
What disease is marked by ground glass infiltrates with cavitation? What is the causative agent? Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS); Coronavirus
In what three regions of the body does the polio virus replicate? (1) Oropharynx (2) Small intestine (3) Motor neurons
Was the 1918 flu pandemic due to a drift or shift? Shift
What is the only live virus vaccine to be given to HIV patients? Can this vaccine be given to pregnant patients? MMR (measles, mumps, rubella); No

Section 43.1 Arbo Viruses

What arbo virus causes Eastern equine encephalitis? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Alphavirus; Mosquito; Birds
What arbo virus causes Western equine encephalitis? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Alphavirus; Mosquito; Birds
What arbo virus causes St. Louis encephalitis? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Flavivirus; Mosquito; Birds
What arbo virus causes fever and headache followed several days later by jaundice and hemorrhage? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Yellow fever virus; Mosquito; Monkeys
What arbo virus causes fever, rash, and joint pain? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Dengue fever virus; Mosquito; Humans and Monkeys
What arbo virus causes fever, confusion, ascending muscle weakness and paralysis? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? West nile virus; Mosquito; Birds (especially crows)
What arbo virus causes California encephalitis? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Bunyavirus; Mosquito; Rodents
What arbo virus causes high fever, headache, retro-orbital pain, and severe myalgia? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Colorado tick fever virus; Wood tick; Small rodents

Section 43.2 Roboviruses

What is the causative agent of Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome? What is the vector? What is its reservoir? Bunyavirus; Deer mice; Deer mice

Section 43.3 More RNA Viruses

What virus, known to cause encephalitis, is associated with negri bodies? Rabies virus
What RNA virus is known to cause diarrhea, thrombocytopenia, hemorrhage/shock, and DIC? Ebola virus
What RNA virus is common at school, camps, and on cruise ships? Norovirus

Section 44.0 Slow Viral Diseases of CNS

What is the causative agent of Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)? Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy? Rubeola (measles virus); JC virus

Section 45.0 Prions

What cause of spongiform encephalopathy is acquired via the cannibalism of human brains? Kuru (trembling disease)
What cause of spongiform encephalopathy is acquired via tissue transplants, human growth hormone, or intracerebral electrodes? Creutzfeld-Jakob disease (CJD)
What cause of spongiform encephalopathy is acquired from contaminated sheep brains? Scrapie
What cause of spongiform encephalopathy is acquired by the ingestion of food products contaminated with beef or sheep CNS? Variant Creutzfeld-Jakob disease (vCJD)
What is the human for of bovine spongiform (aka mad cow disease)? Variant Creutzfeld-Jakob disease (vCJD)
Does dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs with a primary or secondary dengue fever infection? Secondary

Section 46.0 Retroviruses

What enzyme is central to the mechanism of action of retroviruses? What are the three primary retroviruses? Reverse transcriptase; (1) HTLV-1 (2) HTLV-2 (3) HIV
What strain of human T-cell lymphotropic virus causes adult human T cell leukemia/lumphoma and HTLV associated myelopathy? What strain is associated with hairy cell leukemia? HTLV-1; HTLV-2

Section 46.1 Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

What major HIV gene product (gp) is cleaved to form gp 41 and gp 120? gp 160
What major HIV gene product binds CD4 receptors? What major HIV gene product (gp) binds to CCR5 and CXCR4? gp 120; gp 41
What major HIV gene codes for the HIV capside protein? Reverse transcriptase? Gag; Pol
What major HIV gene codes for gp 41 and gp 120? What major HIV gene works to decrease class I MHC synthesis on infected cells? Env; Nef
Which requires a greater viral lode, hepatitis B or HIV? Which may alos act as a super antigen, working directly of CD4 T cells? HIV; HIV
Which major HIV gene undergoes constant mutation and greately decreases the bodies ability to develop natural immunity to the virus? Env gene
What is the diagnostic test of choice for HIV? What is the best confirmatory test? ELISA; Western blot
What are the primary components of HIV antiretroviral therapy? 2 NRTIs + NNRTI or Protease inhibitor or Integrase inhibitor
What are the five scenarios in which an HIV patient would be started on antiretroviral therapy? (1) AIDS defining illness (2) CD4 count <350 (3) HIV-associated nephropathy (4) Hepatitis B or C (5) Pregnancy
How long after infection are anti-HIV antibodies formed? 3-4 weeks
What stage of HIV often lasts for years (longest stage)? Latent (middle)
What are the three different criteria used to define AIDS in an HIV positive patient? (1) CD4<200 (2) AIDS defining infection (3) AIDS defining cancer
At what CD4 level does an HIV postitive patient start receiving antiretroviral therapy? At what level are the diagnosed with AIDS? CD4 <350; CD4<200
What are the three AIDS-defining cancers? (1) Kaposi's sarcoma (2) Cervical carcinoma (3) Non-hodgkin's lymphoma
What is the treatment for pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia? At what point would you begin prophylaxis in an HIV positive patient? Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX); CD<200
What is the drug of choice for prophylaxis against toxoplasmosis? Treatment? Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX); Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine + Leucovorin
What antiviral drug is the drug of choice for CMV retinitis? What serious adverse effect is most common with its use? Ganciclovir; Bone marrow suppression
What is the treatment for mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex (MAC)? At what point would you begin prophylaxis in an HIV positive patient? Clarithromycin + ethambutol; CD4 <50
What is the drug of choice for cryptocoocal meningitis? Amphotericin B + Flucytosine

Section 47.0 Fungi & Parasites

Are fungi prokaryotes or eukaryotes? Eukaryotes

Section 47.1 Molds/Yeasts

Fungi can exist as molds or yeast. _____ are round or oval individual cells. Yeast
Fungi can exist as molds or yeast. _____ are formed from fungal cells that unite end-to-end to form one long string of cells known as a hyphus. Molds
Multiple hyphae together form a _____, the visible fuzzy or hairy area that we may describe as mold. Mycelium

Section 48.0 Fungal Diseases

What are the three fungi known to cause dermatophytosis (ringworm; tinea)? Are they molds or yeasts? (1) Epidermophyton (2) Trichophyton (3) Microsporum; Molds (hyphae)
What fungus causes tinea versicolor? Is it a mold or are yeast? Malassezia furfur; Molds (hyphae)
What fungus is said to have a spaghetti and meatball appearance? What cutaneous condition does it cause? Malassezia furfur; Tinea versicolor
What fungus is marked by cigar-shaped budding yeast? Does it cause a subcutaenous, cutaenous, or systemic infection? Sporothrix shenkii; Subcutaenous
What fungus is known to cause valley fever? Does this disease occur in immunocompetent and immunocompromised patients? Coccidioidomycosis; immunocompetent
What is the route of transmission for coccidioidomycosis? In immunocompetent patients, coccidioidomycosis remains localized to the _____. Inhalation; Lungs
What two activities are most associated with histoplasmosis? (1) Spelunking (2) Soil excavation
What is a dimorphic fungus? Fungus that is mold in the environment but a yeast in the body
What fungus presents with pulmonary TB-like symptoms that spread to the liver and spleen and eventually heals by calcification? Is it a yeast or mold? Histoplasmosis; Both (dimorphic fungus)
What fungus is known to cause skin and bone ulcerative granulomas? Is it a yeast or mold? Blastomycosis; Both (dimorphic fungus)
What fungus is detected by india ink? Where is it most commonly found? Is it a yeast or mold? Cryptococcus; Bird droppings; Yeast
What fungus is marked by germtubes and pseudohyphae? Is it a yeast or mold? Candida; Yeast
What fungus is marked by V-shaped septate hyphae? Aspergillus
What fungus is a common cause of vulvovaginitis? Is it a yeast or mold? Candida; Yeast
What species of aspergillus produces a toxin founnd on grains, cereals, and nuts? What is the name of the toxin? Aspergillus flavus; Aflatoxin
What fungus is marked by non-septate hyphae with right-angled branches? In what part of the body are they most common? Mucor (rhizopus); Paranasal sinuses
What fungus is known to mucormycosis? Is it a yeast or mold? Mucor (rhizopus); Mold
What fungus is especially common in those with DKA, burns, or leukemia? Mucor (rhizopus)

Section 49.0 Blood Protozoa

What are the two major pathologic blood protozoa? (1) Plasmodia (2) Babesia