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Hi Yield 34.0-42.6.1

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mhewett's version from 2016-07-09 20:01

Section 34.0 Non-Fermenting Gram-Negative Rods

Question Answer
What is the number one cause of osteomyelitis in IV drugs users?Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is the most common cause of infection in burn patients?Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is the number one cause of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients greater than six months of age?Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is the number one cause of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients less than six months of age?Staph Aureus
What is the number one cause of malignant otitis externa?pseudomonas aeruginosa
What bacterium is marked by a musty odor and a greenish blue pus due to pyocyanin?Pseudomonas aeruginosa
memorize

Section 35.0 Gram-Negative Rod Respiratory Pathogens

Question Answer
What component of the haemophilus species allows it to easily infect mucosal tissue?IgA protease
What strain of hemophilus causes upper respiratory infections, meningitis, and epiglottitis?H. influenzae
What strain of hemophilus causes chancroid?H. ducreyi
What strain of hemophilus causes a pharyngitis that is commonly confused with S. pyogenes?H. haemolyticus
What is the treatment for all hemophilus infections? What is used for the prophylaxis of close contacts?3rd generation cephalosporin; Rifampin
What are the stages of pertussis?Catarrhal Stage (1-2 weeks): rhinorrhea, malaise, fever, URI
Paroxysmal Coughing Stage (2-4 weeks): up to 50 severe episodes/day + LRI
Convalescent Stage (several months): mild cough
What is the treatment for whooping cough (pertussis)?Erythromycin
What bacteria is known to grow in man-made water reservoirs? Is it gram (+) or gram (-)?Legionella pneumophila; Gram (-)
What is the drug of choice for Legionella pneumophila?Azithromycin OR Doxycycline
What disease is marked by relative bradycardia, atypical pneumonia, and diarrhea? What is the causative organism?Legionnaire's disease; Legionella pneumophila
What is the causative agent of pontiac fever? Is it gram (+) or gram (-)?Legionella pneumophila; Gram (-)
memorize

Section 36.0 Mycobacteria

Question Answer
After an acid-fast stain, what color are acid fast bacteria? Non-acid fast?Pink-red; Blue
What is the test of choice for detecting primary or latent tuberculosis?PPD, also known as tuberculin skin test (TST)
What are the three components on an active/secondary tuberculosis diagnosis?(1) Clinical syptoms (2) Chest x-ray (3) Sputum culture
What disease causes the formation of Ghon complexes?Primary tuberculosis
What lobes of the lung are most commonly affected by primary tuberculosis? Secondary tuberculosis?Primary Middle, lower lobes; Secondary: Upper lobes
A patient with no risk factors for TB is considered to have a positive PPD if the induration is _____ mm.≥15 mm
A patient who is an immigrant, prisoner, health-care worker, or IV drug user is considered to have a positive PPD if the induration is _____ mm.≥10 mm
A patient who has AIDs, HIV, or is in close contact with a patient with active TB is considered to have a positive PPD if the induration is _____ mm.≥5 mm
What is the treatment for any patient with a positive PPD test? What is an alternative treatment?Isoniazid (for 9 months); Rifampin (for 4 months)
Is most "illness" and morbidity of tuberculosis due ot the primary infection or due to reactivation of the previous infection?Reactivation of the previous infection
What are the four drugs most commonly used in combination for the treatment of active TB?(1) Isoniazid (2) Ethambutol (3) Pyrazinamide (4) Rifampin
What is Pott's disease?vertebral TB
What is scrofuloderma?cutaneous TB
What is miliary TB?widespread hematologic dissemination yielding "shot gun pellet" type lesions in lung, CNS, GI, kidney, bones, or any other organ
What type of deficiency is often associated with isoniazid? What should you add to the treatment to prevent this deficiency?Vitamin B6 deficiency; Pyridoxine
What bacterial infection is often associated with weight loss, low grade fever and night sweats?Secondary (active) tuberculosis
What is the causative agent for Hansen's disease? What is alternative name for this disease?Mycobacterium leprae; Leprosy
What is the reservoir for mycobacterium leprae?Armadillos
What form of leprosy is associated with focal erythema with central pigment loss and focal sensory loss? Is this the mild or severe form of the disease?Tuberculoid leprosy; Mild
What form of leprosy is associated with skin nodules, focal sensory loss, and disfigurement? Is this the mild or severe form of the disease?Lepromatous leprosy; Severe
What form of leprosy is lepromin skin test (+)? Lepromin skin test (-)?Tuberculoid leprosy; Lepromatous leprosy
What form of leprosy is associated with a specific HLA? What is the HLA it is associated with?Tuberculoid leprosy; HLA-DR3
What is the most common form of leprosy?Lepromatous leprosy
What bacterium causes a condition clinically indistinguishable for TB, but progresses much more rapidly without multiple stages? What population of patients does it affect?Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare; Immunosuppressed
What is the treatment for mycobacterium avium-intracellulare?Clarithromycin + ethambutol
What strain of mycobacterium is associated with fish tanks or swimming pools?M. marinum
What strain of mycobacterium is spread via unpasteurized milk? What type of tuberculosis does it cause?M. bovis; GI TB
What strain of mycobacterium is saprophytic and grows rapidly and is highly resistant, causing abscesses, corneal ulcers, pulmonary infection?M. fortuitum
memorize

Section 37.0 Filamentous Bacteria

Question Answer
What are the two filamentous bacteria we discussed?(1) Actinomyces israelii (2) Nocardia asteroides
What filamentous bacteria is part of the normal flora of the mouth?Actinomyces israelii
What filamentous bacteria causes infection in patients with poor oral hygiene? What is the drug of choice for treatment?Actinomyces israelii; Penicillin G
What filamentous bacteria has a waxy cell wall? What is the treatment for this organism?Nocardia asteroides; Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole + imipenem-cilastatin
memorize

Section 38.0 Spirochetes

Question Answer
What are the three genera of spirochetes?(1) Treponema (2) Borrelia (3) Leptospira
What venereal disease is characterized by a hard painless chancre? What is the causative agent?Syphilis; Treponema pallidum
What are the screening tests for syphilis?VDRL or RPR
What are the confirmatory tests for syphilis?FTA-ABS or TPHA
What is the drug of choice for chancroid? Syphilis?Ceftriaxone; Penicillin G
What is the preferred screening test for syphilis? What is the diagnostic test of choice?RPR; FTA-ABS
What stage of syphilis is marked by rash and condyloma lata? Painless hard chancre?Secondary syphilis; Primary syphilis;
What is Argyll-Robertson pupil? What stage of syphilis is it associated with?Pupils that accommodate (focus on objects) but do not constrict when exposed to light (i.e. they don't react); Tertiary syphilis
What is the transmission rate for syphilis during pregnancy? What are four signs of congenital syphilis?100%; (1) Saddle nose (2) Hutchinson teeth (3) Mulberry molars (4) Saber shins
What is the most common vector-borne disease in the US? What is the causative agent?Lyme disease; Borrelia burgdorferi
What is the reservoir for borrelia burgdorgeri? What is the vector?White-footed mouse; Tick ixodes (deer tick)
What stage of lyme disease is marked by arthralgias and a single bull's eye lesion?Stage I
What stage of lyme disease is marked by mycoarditis and potential neurologic manifestations?Stage II
What stage of lyme disease is marked chronic arthritis and MS-like symptoms?Stage III
What is the treatment for acute (stage I or II) lyme disease? What if the patient is pregnant?Doxycycline; Amoxicillin
What is the treatment for chronic (stage III) lyme disease?Penicillin G
What spirochete is known to cause a relapsing fever approximately every 8 days? What is the vector? What is the drug of choice?Borrelia recurrentis; Louse; Tetracycline
What bacterial infection often comes from sewers and water contaminated with rat, mouse, cat, or dog urine? What is the treatment?Leptospira interrogans; Penicillin G
What is the causative agent of Weil's disease? What is the treatment?Leptospira interrogans; Penicillin G
What reaction can occur with the treatment of any spirochetal infection? What are the two most common infection in which it occurs with?Jarish-Herxheimer reaction - d/t lysis of spirochetes and release of endotoxin-like molecules
(1) Symphilis (2) Lyme disease
memorize

Section 39.0 Chlamydia

Question Answer
Chlamydia trachomatis exists outside the body in an inert state known as _____. When they enter a cell, they become larger and metabolically active, and are known as _____.Elementary bodies; Reticulate body
What are the four infections known to causes Reiter's syndrome? What HLA is associated with the disease?(1) Chlamydia (2) Shigella (3) Salmonella (4) Campylobacter
HLA-B27
What is the treatment for chlamydial conjunctivitis? Neonatal inclusion conjunctivitis?Azithromycin; Erythromycin
What is the treatment for all chlamydial infections of the genital tract? What is the treatment for lymphogranuloma venereum?Azithromycin OR Doxycycline; Doxycycline
What bacterium can be found in bird feces, especially parrots? What is the preferred treatment?Chlamydia psittaci; Doxycycline
memorize

Section 40.0 Rickettsia

Question Answer
What is the drug of choice for all forms of rickettsia?Doxycycline
What type of rickettsia is associated with a rash that starts around the waist and spreads peripherally?Typhus
What are the three types of typhus and what their causative vectors?(1) Epidemic, Lice
(2) Endemic, Fleas
(3) Scrub, Mites
What are the three types of typhus and what their causative agents?(1) Epidemic, R. prowazekii
(2) Endemic, R. typhi
(3) Scrub, R. tsutsugamushi
What type of rickettsia is associated with a rash that starts on the extremities? What is the causative agent?Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever; Rickettsia rickettsiae
What is the only type of rickettsia not associated with a rash or the bite of an arthropod? What is the causative agent?Q fever; Coxiella burnetti
What type of rickettsia is associated with severe bone pain and a rash? What is the causative agent?Trench fever; Bartonella quintana
What bacterial disease is associated with a (+) Weil-Felix test?Rickettsia
What type of cells are targeted by rickettsia? Which strain of rickettsia has the greatest predilection for this tissue?Endothelial cells of blood vessels; Rickettsia rickettsiae
memorize

Section 41.0 Viruses

Which type of virus is more sensitive to drying, heat, and disinfectants, enveloped or naked virus? Eveloped virus
What is the most common mode of transmission for naked viruses? Enveloped viruses? Fecal-oral; Direct contanct or via aniaml or insect bite

Section 42.0 DNA Viruses

What are the three major families of enveloped DNA viruses? (1) Poxviridae (2) Hepandaviridae (3) Herpesviridae

Section 42.1 Parvoviridae

What is the causative agent of 5th disease? What is another name for this disease? Parovirus B19; Slapped cheek disease

Section 42.2 Papovaviridae

What is the causative agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy? What type of cells does it affect? JC virus; Oligodendrocytes (cells that form CNS myelin)
What strains of HPV are most associated with genital warts? Plantar and skin warts? HPV 6 and 11; HPV 1-4
What virus causes infected cells to develop peri-nuclear clearings known as koilocytes? HPV
What strains of HPV have the high risk for the development of carcinoma of the cervix, penis, or anus? HPV 16 and 18 (also those in the 30s, 40s, 50s)
Gardasil is a vaccination against what virus? What strains of the virus does it immunize against? HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
HPV is known to alter the function of what two tumor suppressor genes? (1) p53 (2) RB tumor suppressor gene

Section 42.3 Adenoviridae

What are the three organisms associated with exudative pharyngitis? Which is also associated with conjunctivitis? (1) S. pyogenes (2) Adenovirus (3) EBV; Adenovirus
What part of the body does adenovirus usually affect? Upper respiratory tract

Section 42.4 Poxviridae

Compare chickenpox and smallpox in terms of the synchrony/asynchrony between lesion evolution. In chickenpox lesion are at different stages (asynchrony); In smallpox all lesions are at the same stage (synchrony)
On what part of the body does the rash of smallpox usually begin? Face
What disease is marked by small, pink, papules with an indented crater in the center with a white core? Children with this disease on their genitals must be evaluated for what? Molluscum contagiosum; Sexual abuse

Section 42.5 Hepadnaviridae

What heptic disease is associated with the Dane particle? What is the earliest marker for this disease? Hepatitis B; HBs-Ag
What is the diagnosis for a patient with (+)HBsAg who is negative on all other serum tests? What is this patient presents 7 months later with a still (+) HBsAg? Acute hepatitis B; Chronic hepatitis B
What is the drug of choice for chronic hepatitis B? Pegylated interferon alpha

Section 42.6.1 Herpes Simplex Virus

What strain of HSV is more associated with infections above the waist? Below the waist? HSV 1; HSV 2
What nerve is most commonly associated with latent oral herpes? CN V (trigeminal n)
What is the most common stain of HSV? What is the drug of choice for HSV infection? HSV-1; Acyclovir
What is the screening test of choice for HSV? What drug is used for prohylaxis against the disease? Tzanch smear; Acyclovir
What disease is marked by painful fluid-filled vessicles that erupt in a group on an erythematous base? What is the drug of choice for this disease? Herpes; Acyclovir
Does gingivostomatitis caused by HSV involve the anterior or posteior portion of the mouth? Anterior
What virus is known to cause cold sores and fever blisters? HSV
What complication of HSV is associated with dendritis corneal ulcers that may be sight threatening? Herpes keratoconjunctivitis
What lobe of the brain is most affected by herpes encephalitis? Temporal lobe
Are primary genital herpes infections associated with lymphadenopathy? How about reccurent infections? Yes; No