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CORRECT Pharmacology Final

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waveurflag's version from 2018-12-09 16:34

Section

Question Answer
1. Which of the following functions as an “off switch” in T cells and is triggered by cancer cells to hide from the immune system?PD-1
Pembrolizumab is a humanized IgG4 antibody. What are IgG4 antibodies best at doing?Neutralizing targets (i.e. preventing targets from interacting with other chemicals)
Which of the following is least accurate regarding pembrolizumab (Keytruda)?DA. ue to its mechanism of action and distribution to tissues, pembrolizumab was found to be safe in lactating women.
Sometimes, pembrolizumab (Keytruda) may cause immune-mediated adverse effects. Which of the following immune-mediated adverse effects are not correct? Type II DM
5. What do you need to consider about Narcan and the duration of action? You may have to repeat the dose. The effects of narcan may wear off before narcotic, since narcan is shorter acting than most opioids
5. Narcan is used when there is a known or suspected overdose. Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of an opioid overdose.Pupil dilation
5. Which dosage form provides the fastest onset of action for Narcan? IM/SubQ/Endotracheal
Which of the following statements is false in regard to administration of Naloxone?Neonates can use Narcan
What does neratinib bind to?All of the above (because HER1 is aka EGFR)
What effect does neratinib have on a tumor?Reduces tumor cell growth and proliferation
Is there any pregnancy concern with nertatinib?Yes - women of childbearing age should take a pregnancy test and be on appropriate contraception during and for 1 month after neratinib use
What kind of therapy is neratinib?Adjuvant
Which of the following is CORRECT about type 2 diabetes (T2DM)?T2DM occurs when your body is resistant to insulin or does not produce enough insulin, leading to increased levels of serum glucose in the blood
What is an effect of Jardiance that differentiates it from most types 2 diabetes mellitus medications?Reduction of cardiovascular events and mortality
What receptor in the kidney does Jardiance work on?SGLT2
Which of the following are true statements regarding the Pharmacokinetics of Empagliflozin?All of the above
What is the recommended duration of therapy of Bevyxxa?35-42 days
Bevyxxa has a black box warning forEpidural and spinal hematoma
What percent is Bevyxxa excreted in the urine?11%
What drug reverses the anti-coagulation effects of Bevyxxa?None of the above
Tremfya is an example of?Human Monoclonal IgG antibody
Which of the following plaque psoriasis biologic is INCORRECTLY matched with its target agent?Stelara- IL12 and IL17A antagonist
All of the following are adverse effects of Tremfya EXCEPT:Constipation
Which of the following statement(s) in regards to special population considerations of Tremfya is/are TRUE?i. Patients need to be tested for TB prior to administration ii. Administration to pregnant patients is contraindicated iii. Use of medication may increase risk of infections
Why is QTERN contraindicated in patients with renal impairment?Increases serum creatinine and decreases eGFR
Which of the following correctly describes a mechanism of how a component of QTERN (dapagliflozin/saxagliptin) works on a cellular level and the expected effect it produces?Saxagliptin acts as an inhibitor of DPP-4, which allows incretins to decrease blood glucose levels
Which of the following correctly describes the the result of inhibition of SGLT-2 in the kidneys on a tissue level?SGLT-2 inhibition results in decrease reabsorption and lowers the renal absorption threshold resulting in increased excretion of glucose.
Which of the following can affect the absorption of QTERN?Taking QTERN with a high fat content meal
Why is rivastigmine used for Alzheimer’s?It reversibly inhibits hydrolysis of acetylcholine.
Which of the following is incorrect about Rivastigmine?It reverses the progression of Alzheimer’s
What is the most common adverse effect with Rivastigmine?Nausea/vomiting
Which of the following is true about rivastigamine? Patients that are renally or hepatically impaired may require dose adjustments.
What is the role of Allopurinol in Duzallo?Inhibits xanthine oxidase to prevent the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid
What is the role of xanthine oxidase, the molecule that Allopurinol targets?Converts Hypoxanthine to Xanthine, and also converts Xanthine to Uric Acid
What is the Black Box Warning for Duzallo?Acute renal failure
All of the following about Duzallo is true except?Duzallo needs to be renally dose adjusted for CrCl above 45ml/min
Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of Vabomere (Meropenem and Vaborbactam)?Constipation
Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of vaborbactam?By protecting Merobenem from degradation by certain serine beta - lactamases.
Vaborbactam was chosen for clinical development because of its potent inhibition of the KPC family serine B-lactamases. Vaborbactam does NOT possess inhibitory activity against what class? Class D carbapenemases
Which of the following statements is true about VabomereYou cannot use Meropenem and Vaborbactam as monotherapy for cUTI
Xadago (Safinamide):Improves OFF time AND Is a reversible selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor type B
What is the dopaminergic pathway potentiated by Xadago (Safinamide) in Parkinson’s Disease?Substantia nigra >> Striatum >> Thalamus >> Motor Cortex >> Corticospinal tract >> Muscle control
Some side effects of Xadago (Safinamide) include dyskinesia, nausea, and insomnia. Increasing the concentration of what neurotransmitter can be the cause of these side effects after Xadago use?Dopamine
The use of Xadago (Safinamide), a monoamine oxidase B inhibitor used to treat Parkinson’s disease, is contraindicated for use in patients with a history of All of the above
Which most accurately describes the MOA of Kisqali® (ribociclib)?Binds to CDK4/6 to decrease Rb phosphorylation
What are common adverse effects associated with Kisqali® (ribociclib)?Neutropenia, hepatobiliary toxicity, and QT prolongation
Kisqali® (ribociclib) should be dose adjusted in which patient populations?Several renal impairment
What other drugs are in the same pharmacological category as Kisqali® (ribociclib)?abemaciclib and palbociclib
What is Tymlos indicated for?decrease the chance of spine and other bone fractures and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women
How is Tymlos administered and where?SQ injection into the lower abdomen below the belly button
Which answer DOES NOT correctly describe the MOA of Tymlos?It is a alpha PTHrP(1-34) agonist
Which is NOT considered an adverse effect of Tymlos?Hypocalciuria
Question: Which of the following are indicated for the use of Rebinyn in Hemophilia B patients?a. Perioperative management of bleeding b. Treatment of bleeding episodes
Question: Which Factor does Rebinyn temporarily replace in the intrinsic coagulation cascade in patients with Hemophilia B? IX
Question Which factors activate factor IX? Factor XIa and VIIa/tissue factor complex
Question: What is the t ½ of Rebinyn?93 hours
Which special population has been known to have a greater risk of infection due to Kevzara?Geriatric patients
Which of the following is False about Kevzara?Kevzara is a novel therapy
Kevzara is used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis (RA). How does RA affect the body?It leads to the secretion of IL-6 into the body, leading to inflammation and weakened cartilage
A patient presents to your outpatient clinic, with RA and has failed Tocilizumab therapy for their RA with your pharmacology knowledge what drug can be used to help this patient?a. Kevzara b. Kevzara and Methotrexate combination
What is the FDA indication for Zyrtec?Allergic rhinitis and urticaria
Which generation of antihistamines is Zyrtec categorized under? Second generation
Zyrtec antagonizes which of the following receptors:Histamine-1
Cetirizine is considered a pregnancy risk category ___ drug. B
What is TRUE about the mechanism of action of Alirocumab (Asish)It is an antibody that inhibits the binding of PCSK9 to the LDL-R resulting in a lowered serum LDL-C
What medical condition does Praluent help treat? (Dwipi)Hypercholesterolemia
Alirocumab is contraindicated in: (Asish)Pregnant women
All of the following is true about Praluent EXCEPT (Lindsay)Praluent was approved 20 years ago and has more established efficacy than its competitor, Repatha
What are the two classes of drugs in aspirin and omeprazole (Yosprala)Antiplatelet agent and PPI
Activated platelets secrete both _______, which captures microparticles who have tissue factor, and ______, which aspirin prevents the formation ofP-Selectin, Thromboxane
Aspirin causes irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes by which reaction?Acetylation
Which of the following patient populations should you avoid Yosprala use in?All of the above for yosprala
What is INCORRECT about Byvalson’s Therapeutic Relevance?Byvalson has been withdrawn due to having a worse side-effect profile than the individual components alone
What receptors does Byvalson act on?a) AT1 receptor b) Beta-1 receptor
What patient populations should not use Byvalson?a) All of the above
Which of the following statements about Byvalson is INCORRECT?The valsartan component causes vasodilation and increases PVR
What interaction is responsible for the treatment of migraines by Onzetra Xsail?Sumatriptan on 5HT-1B/1D receptors, causing vasoconstriction and inhibition of inflammation
Which is NOT a contraindication of Onzetra Xsail?Renal impairment
What serious side effects can Onzetra Xsail cause?Cardiovascular complications
What is Onzetra Xsail indicated for?Treatment of migraine
What type of gene alterations will cause an increased risk of bleeding when taking warfarin?Vitamin K oxidoreductase (VKORC) 1 polymorphism, CYP2C9 *2 allele, and CYP2C9 *3 allele
Choose the most correct statement about warfarin.Primary elimination is in the urine, mostly as metabolites.
Which is a correct indication for the use of warfarin:Secondary prevention of thromboembolic complications in atrial fibrillation, AND Prevent systemic embolism in a recurrent myocardial infarction
Which is incorrect about warfarin: Primarily metabolized through CYP3A4
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of COPD?Underproduction of mucus
Tiotropium (Spiriva®️) provides what for COPD patients? Long acting bronchodilation
Tiotropium bromide has affinity for M1 – M5 receptors. Why is M3 a good target?M3 is responsible for mucus production so it is a good target for inhibition by tiotropium bromide action M3 is primary subtype responsible for desired bronchial and tracheal smooth muscle relaxation
Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the use of tiotropium bromide?May worsen symptoms of narrow-angle glaucoma. May worsen symptoms of prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
Being that tiotropium is a muscarinic antagonist, it displays anticholinergic adverse effects. Which of the following is an adverse effect of the active ingredient tiotropium, in both the metered dose Respimat and the dry powder Handihaler? Dry mouth
Which of the following is correct?Cephalexin is a 1st generation cephalosporin
What enzyme does cephalexin inhibt?Transpeptidase
True or False? Cephalexin can cover all gram positive infections.False
Which of the following patients can cephalexin be prescribed to?56 year old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus
Which if the following is correct about the pharmacokinetics of Cymbalta (Duloxetine)?The medication can distribute into the tissues because it has a high volume of distribution
Mechanism of action, Cymbalta, duloxetine, is a(n)Antagonist, that blocks the reuptake of neurotransmitters in the brain, used for the treatment of major depressive disorder
Cymbalta, duloxetine, has been approved by the FDA for the treatment ofDepression, pain and anxiety
Cymbalta, duloxetine, is a) All of the above are true.
What is a severe side effect of Odefsey?Hepatotoxicity
Which of the following is false about Odefsey?Emtricitabine is a natural analog of cytosine
Odefsey contains the TAF salt of tenofovir instead of the TDF salt. Why is this important?TAF has significantly less nephrotoxicity and bone density depletion risk.
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