Chapter 11 - BLS Resuscitation

mason's version from 2017-04-23 14:32

General Knowledge

Question Answer
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as...
     A.) invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
     B.) any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.
     C.) basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
     D.) noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
After ________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely.
     A.) 2
     B.) 4
     C.) 5
     D.) 6
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should...
     A.) open the airway.
     B.) assess for breathing.
     C.) check for a carotid pulse.
     D.) attach an automated external defibrillator (AED).
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of...
     A.) severe blunt trauma.
     B.) a cardiac arrhythmia.
     C.) an acute ischemic stroke.
     D.) obstruction of the airway.
Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct.
     A.) It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest.
     B.) AEDs should not be used to defibrillate patients in V-fib.
     C.) The only indication for immediate defibrillation is V-fib.
     D.) Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is correct.
     A.) AEDs should never be used on children younger than 8 years or less than 55 pounds.
     B.) AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest.
     C.) AED use in children up to 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer.
     D.) AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation.
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected.
     A.) jaw-thrust
     B.) tongue-jaw lift
     C.) head tilt–neck lift
     D.) head tilt–chin lift
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she...
     A.) is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.
     B.) has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively.
     C.) is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.
     D.) has a pulse but is unconscious and breathing shallowly.
What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered during mouth-to-mask breathing without supplemental oxygen.
     A.) 10%
     B.) 16%
     C.) 21%
     D.) 32%
When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath...
     A.) over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds.
     B.) while watching for adequate chest rise.
     C.) with a tidal volume of about 500 mL.
     D.) quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur...
     A.) in patients who are intubated.
     B.) if you ventilate a patient too fast.
     C.) when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
     D.) when the airway is completely obstructed.
If gastric distention is so severe that is makes positive-pressure ventilation extremely difficult or impossible, you may have to...
     A.) apply manual pressure to the abdomen.
     B.) suction the airway for up to 45 seconds.
     C.) insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct.
     D.) increase the force of your ventilations.
You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by...
     A.) compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
     B.) compressing the sternum between the nipples.
     C.) placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
     D.) depressing the sternum 2″ to 2½″.
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT...
     A.) rib fractures.
     B.) liver laceration.
     C.) gastric distention.
     D.) a fractured sternum.
To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of least _______ per minute.
     A.) 80
     B.) 90
     C.) 100
     D.) 110
In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of...
     A.) 5:1.
     B.) 5:2.
     C.) 15:2.
     D.) 30:2.
After the patient’s airway is intubated during two-rescuer CPR, you should...
     A.) pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
     B.) increase rescue breathing to a rate of 12 breaths/min.
     C.) decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
     D.) deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should...
     A.) assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
     B.) move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.
     C.) give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
     D.) suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by...
     A.) maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
     B.) maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
     C.) drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.
     D.) limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest compressions is.
     A.) the minimal training required to correctly operate the devices.
     B.) the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions.
     C.) the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient.
     D.) its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size.
In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by...
     A.) a drug overdose.
     B.) respiratory arrest.
     C.) severe chest trauma.
     D.) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of _______ times per minute.
     A.) 10
     B.) 15
     C.) 20
     D.) 30
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is...
     A.) one third the diameter of the chest or about 1½“.
     B.) one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest.
     C.) one half the diameter of the chest or about 1½″.
     D.) two thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2″.
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant.
     A.) 90
     B.) 100
     C.) 110
     D.) 120
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.
     A.) radial
     B.) carotid
     C.) temporal
     D.) brachial
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR.
     A.) 3:1
     B.) 5:1
     C.) 30:2
     D.) 15:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest...
     A.) until a radial pulse is felt.
     B.) with one or two hands.
     C.) to a depth of 1″ to 2″.
     D.) 70 to 80 times per minute.
Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR.
     A.) dependent blood pooling
     B.) pulselessness and apnea
     C.) agonal respiratory effort
     D.) severe cyanosis to the face
CPR should be initiated when...
     A.) rigor mortis is obvious.
     B.) a valid living will is unavailable.
     C.) the carotid pulse is very weak.
     D.) signs of putrefaction are present.
Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started.
     A.) Pulse and respirations return.
     B.) You are physically exhausted.
     C.) A physician directs you to do so.
     D.) Care is transferred to a bystander.
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes...
     A.) performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts.
     B.) visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.
     C.) administering oxygen and transporting immediately.
     D.) advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT...
     A.) acute cyanosis.
     B.) inability to speak.
     C.) grasping the throat.
     D.) forceful coughing.
Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed...
     A.) until he or she loses consciousness.
     B.) in sets of five followed by reassessment.
     C.) about 1″ below the xiphoid process.
     D.) until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese.
     A.) back blows
     B.) finger sweeps
     C.) chest thrusts
     D.) abdominal thrusts
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves...
     A.) back slaps.
     B.) bag-mask ventilation.
     C.) abdominal thrusts.
     D.) blind finger sweeps.

Critical Thinking

Question Answer
You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should...
     A.) begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available.
     B.) immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
     C.) begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.
     D.) apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should...
     A.) apply the AED pad at least 1″ away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
     B.) continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
     C.) move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
     D.) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should...
     A.) try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
     B.) carefully perform the head tilt–chin lift maneuver.
     C.) tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient’s neck.
     D.) suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
A 60-year-old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should...
     A.) start CPR and transport immediately.
     B.) withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
     C.) determine if he has a valid living will.
     D.) begin CPR until an AED is available.
Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should...
     A.) suction the airway.
     B.) perform a blind finger sweep.
     C.) perform 30 chest compressions.
     D.) ventilate again with greater force.